Again, the whole argument under pay equity was because there was such a discretion between gender from the wages that men were getting compared to women and they tried to bring that in line with the reality of the time. From what the information being provided is, there is a $20,000 difference between two classes of people that are employed in the government under the different classification of P1 and P2. I’d like to ask why there is such a discretion. Is it because of education levels? Is it because of where they’re located? The majority of these individuals under P1 are located in the smaller communities. Why is there such a discretion on the base? You can call it

race, you can call it whatever, but there’s a difference of almost 30 percent wages between one group and another.